Ethiopia Grade 12 Biology: Unit 4 Evolution Questions Answers

Ethiopia Grade 12 Biology: Unit 4 Evolution Questions Answers: Ethiopia Grade 12 Biology Unit 4 Evolution is a course that focuses on the principles and theories of evolution. The unit covers the historical development of evolutionary theory, the evidence supporting the theory of evolution, and the mechanisms by which evolution occurs, such as natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow.

Students learn about the different factors that can drive evolution, including mutation, adaptation, and genetic variation, as well as the role of the environment in shaping evolutionary patterns. The unit also discusses the concept of speciation and the formation of new species through mechanisms like reproductive isolation.

Ethiopia Grade 12 Biology: Unit 4 Evolution Content

The origin of life
Theories of evolution
The evidence for evolution
The processes of evolution
The evolution of humans

Overall, the course aims to provide students with a comprehensive understanding of the principles and processes of evolution and their relevance to modern biological research and conservation efforts.

Biology: Unit 4 Evolution Questions Answers Quiz

Ethiopia Grade 12 Biology: Unit 4 Evolution

Ethiopia Grade 12 Biology:
Unit 4 Evolution
Questions Type: Multiple Choice Questions
Total MCQs: 50
TOPICS:

The origin of life: 10 MCQs
Theories of evolution: 10 MCQs
The evidence for evolution : 10 MCQs
The processes of evolution: 10 MCQs
The evolution of humans: 10 MCQs

1 / 50

As humans migrated from Africa to colder climates, adaptations that would confer a survival advantage include:

A) a longer, thinner body shape

B) a less hairy body

C) less adipose tissue

D) a shorter, squatter body shape

2 / 50

In stabilising selection, the selection pressure operates:

A) in favour of those individuals showing the mean values for a feature

B) in favour of those individuals at one extreme of the range of values for a feature

C) in favour of those individuals showing both extremes of the range of values for a feature

D) none of the above

3 / 50

The common ancestor of modern humans and chimpanzees lived about:

A) 2 million years ago

B) 4 million years ago

C) 6 million years ago

D) 8 million years ago

4 / 50

Fossils over 10 million years old are best dated by:

A) carbon14 dating

B) stratigraphy

C) potassium–argon dating

D) none of the above

5 / 50

The fact that Ardi was bipedal disproves the idea that:

A) there was a common ancestor of modern humans and chimpanzees

B) the common ancestor of modern humans and chimpanzees was like a chimpanzee

C) the common ancestor of modern humans and chimpanzees was intelligent

D) there was no common ancestor of modern humans and chimpanzees

6 / 50

In directional selection, the selection pressure operates:

A) in favour of those individuals showing the mean values for a feature

B) in favour of those individuals at one extreme of the range of values for a feature

C) in favour of those individuals at both extremes of the range of values for a feature

D) none of the above

7 / 50

The theory behind using protein biochemistry to classify organisms is:

A) the more similar the proteins, the more closely related the organisms

B) the extent of the similarity of proteins measures how long ago species diverged

C) similar organisms will have similar proteins because they have similar DNA

D) all of the above

8 / 50

In disruptive selection, the selection pressure operates:

A) in favour of those individuals showing the mean values for a feature

B) in favour of those individuals at one extreme of the range of values for a feature

C) in favour of those individuals at both extremes of the range of values for a feature

D) none of the above

9 / 50

A recent genetic analysis of human populations suggests that there are:

A) five distinct human races

B) five human races with some subdivisions

C) three human races with some subdivisions

D) three distinct human races

10 / 50

In the past spontaneous generation has suggested that:

A) life can be created from non-living matter

B) micro-organisms can be created from nonliving matter

C) flies can be created from rotting meat

D) all of the above

11 / 50

Evolution is best described as:

A) a genetic change in an individual

B) a genetic change in an individual that is passed on through successive generations

C) a genetic change in a population

D) a genetic change in a population that is passed on through successive generations

12 / 50

In comparing Darwin’s theory of evolution with Lamarck’s, it is true to say that:

A) Darwin based his theory on natural selection whilst Lamarck based his on use and disuse

B) Lamarck believed that variation arose out of a need to change whereas Darwin suggested that variations were already present in populations

C) both suggested that new species could evolve eventually

D) all of the above

13 / 50

The wings of a bird and a pterodactyl are the result of:

A) convergent evolution

B) directional selection

C) stabilising selection

D) divergent evolution

14 / 50

During hominid evolution, brain size has:

A) increased overall but decreased as a proportion of body mass

B) decreased overall and decreased as a proportion of body mass

C) decreased overall but increased as a proportion of body mass

D) increased overall and increased as a proportion of body mass

15 / 50

Which of the following is the best definition of a chemo-autotroph?

A) An organism that uses chemical reactions as a source of energy.

B) An organism that uses chemical reactions as a source of energy to absorb its food.

C) An organism that uses chemical reactions as a source of energy to synthesise its own food.

D) An organism that uses chemical reactions as a source of energy to synthesise organic molecules, using carbon dioxide as a starting point.

16 / 50

Sympatric speciation involves:

A) a period when individuals of two populations are prevented from interbreeding

B) geographical isolation

C) a period of decreasing genetic diversity of two populations

D) all of the above

17 / 50

A fossil can be:

A) an imprint of part of an organism

B) an imprint of a whole organism

C) a footprint

D) all of the above

18 / 50

The scientists who developed the theory of abiogenesis were:

A) Miller and Bernal

B) Miller and Oparin

C) Bernal and Haldane

D) Oparin and Haldane

19 / 50

Special creationism always suggests that:

A) evolution is a tool of a supreme being

B) a supreme being created everything in its present state

C) a supreme being is somehow involved in the creation of life

D) none of the above

20 / 50

Although now discredited, Lamarck’s work is regarded as important because he attempted to explain:

A) how new species could appear over a long period of time

B) how an individual could acquire new characteristics

C) how a gene pool could change over time

D) how mutations could appear

21 / 50

The human races are now less likely to evolve into separate species because:

A) humans are able to travel freely across the globe

B) interbreeding between different races occurs quite frequently

C) we are able to modify our environments

D) all of the above

22 / 50

It is true to say that modern humans are:

A) hominins

B) hominids

C) primates

D) all of the above

23 / 50

Neo-Darwinism is a modification of Darwin’s original theory that takes into account:

A) the inheritance of acquired characteristics and ethology

B) behavioural psychology and molecular genetics

C) genetics and ecology

D) genetics and ethology

24 / 50

A gene pool is:

A) all the genes in an individual

B) all the alleles in an individual

C) all the alleles in a population

D) all the genes in a population

25 / 50

Fertile polyploid organisms could have:

A) two sets of chromosomes per cell

B) one set of chromosomes per cell

C) three sets of chromosomes per cell

D) four sets of chromosomes per cell

26 / 50

In DNA hybridisation, the similarity between DNA of two species is determined by:

A) the extent to which strands of the different ssDNA hybridise (bind) on heating

B) the extent to which strands of the different ssDNA hybridise (bind) on cooling

C) the extent to which strands of the different ssDNA separate on heating

D) the extent to which strands of the different ssDNA separate on cooling

27 / 50

New alleles arising from mutations in a population will:

A) increase in frequency if they are beneficial in their effect and decrease in frequency if they are neutral in their effect

B) increase in frequency if they are neutral in their effect and decrease in frequency if they are harmful in their effect

C) increase in frequency if they are beneficial in their effect and increase in frequency if they are neutral in their effect

D) increase in frequency if they are beneficial in their effect and decrease in frequency if they are harmful in their effect

28 / 50

Analogous structures:

A) have the same function

B) have different internal structures

C) develop differently

D) all of the above

29 / 50

Bacterial populations can develop a resistance to antibiotics. Which of the factors listed below does NOT contribute to the development of antibiotic resistance?

A) random mutations in the bacterial population

B) the repeated use of the same antibiotic on a bacterial population

C) careful selection of the most effective antibiotic to use on a bacterial population

D) people not completing a course of antibiotics so that some bacteria survive

30 / 50

Convergent evolution can occur when:

A) different organisms inhabit different environments

B) different organisms inhabit similar environments

C) similar organisms inhabit similar environments

D) similar organisms inhabit different environments

31 / 50

Lucy belonged to the genus:

A) Homo

B) Ardepithecus

C) Australopithecus

D) Pan

32 / 50

Divergent evolution is an alternative name for:

A) allopatric speciation

B) adaptive radiation

C) sympatric speciation

D) disruptive selection

33 / 50

Plant and animal breeding provide evidence of evolution because:

A) they create new species

B) they show that natural selection can produce variation

C) they show that selective breeding can produce new varieties

D) they create organisms with a better yield

34 / 50

The sequence of events in fossil formation by permineralisation is:

A) organism dies – falls into water – is covered with sediment – is compressed by pressure – hard parts of organism replaced by minerals

B) organism dies – is covered with sediment – is compressed by pressure – falls into water – hard parts of organism replaced by minerals

C) organism dies – is covered with sediment – falls into water – hard parts of organism replaced by minerals – is compressed by pressure

D) organism dies – falls into water – hard parts of organism replaced by minerals – is compressed by pressure – is covered with sediment

35 / 50

It is true to say that:

A) modern humans evolved from chimpanzees

B) modern humans evolved from Homo erectus

C) modern humans and chimpanzees evolved from a common ancestor

D) modern humans evolved from Australopithecus robustus

36 / 50

As a result of natural selection, those most adapted to an environment survive to reproduce in the greatest numbers because:

A) resources are limited

B) resources are limited and there is a natural variation between members of a population

C) resources are limited, there is a natural variation between members of a population and living things tend to overreproduce

D) none of the above

37 / 50

In sympatric speciation, the isolating mechanism could be:

A) temporal

B) seasonal

C) behavioural

D) any of the above

38 / 50

All forms of the biochemical theory (abiogenesis) suggest that:

A) life evolved from non-biological molecules which reacted together and eventually formed pre-cells

B) life evolved from non-biological molecules which reacted together using solar or electrical energy at the surface of the oceans and eventually formed pre-cells

C) life evolved from non-biological molecules which reacted together using heat energy deep beneath the sea and eventually formed pre-cells

D) life evolved from non-biological molecules which reacted together in small pools and eventually formed pre-cells

39 / 50

Darwin’s theory of natural selection was based on the observations that:

A) all things tend to over-reproduce and there is a struggle for existence

B) there is variation in populations and there is a struggle for existence

C) some members of a population are better adapted than others and there is a struggle for existence

D) all things tend to over-reproduce and there is variation in populations

40 / 50

A larger brain gave modern humans an increased ability to:

A) run faster with a more upright posture

B) develop and use weapons and tools

C) plan in advance to avoid attack

D) all of the above

41 / 50

Allopatric speciation involves:

A) a period when individuals of two populations are prevented from interbreeding

B) geographical isolation

C) a period of increasing genetic diversity of two populations

D) all of the above

42 / 50

All forms of the cosmozoan (panspermia) theory suggest that:

A) life forms arrived on Earth from other celestial bodies

B) life forms arrived on Earth due to radiation pressure

C) organic molecules arrived on Earth in meteorites

D) other celestial bodies have been important in the origin of life on Earth

43 / 50

Homologous structures:

A) have a different structure

B) have a different evolutionary origin

C) often have a different function

D) develop differently in the embryo

44 / 50

The first photo-autotrophic organisms were likely to have been:

A) green algae

B) sulphur bacteria

C) plants

D) blue-green bacteria

45 / 50

Comparative embryology provides evidence of evolution because:

A) the embryos retrace their evolutionary history

B) very different embryos show similarities in their early development

C) all the embryos have gills

D) none of the above

46 / 50

Which of the following statements does not describe why imprinting by goslings is adaptive behaviour (has survival value)?

A) it helps makes sure the goslings will be protected

B) it helps make sure the goslings will be fed

C) it helps them solve abstract problems

D) it helps make sure the goslings stay together and so are less likely to be predated

47 / 50

From the time when oxygen was first produced on the planet, it took approximately how many years for the levels to begin to rise?

A) 1 000 000

B) 10 000 000

C) 100 000 000

D) 1 000 000 000

48 / 50

The eternity of life theory suggests that:

A) all life forms are eternal

B) life has always existed and always will

C) life will go on forever

D) all of the above

49 / 50

Which of the following is NOT a primate trait?

A) Opposable thumbs

B) Binocular vision

C) Four-chambered heart

D) Nails instead of claws

50 / 50

Darwin’s finches were able to evolve into 14 different species from one ancestral type because:

A) there were many different habitats and niches on the Galapagos islands

B) there was variation in the population of ancestral finchesthat colonised the islands

C) there was little competition for the niches

D) all of the above

Your score is

The average score is 37%

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